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1. What is the volume represented by "3000 ml"?
A) Three liters
B) Two liters
C) One liter
D) Four liters
B) Two liters
C) One liter
D) Four liters
2. If a patient requires a decrease in the flow rate by 50gtt/min, what was the original flow rate if it was 31 gtts per minute?
A) 81 gtts/min
B) 61 gtts/min
C) 41 gtts/min
D) 21 gtts/min
B) 61 gtts/min
C) 41 gtts/min
D) 21 gtts/min
3. What is the appropriate response to something unusual, possibly requiring physician intervention?
A) Continue with the current care plan
B) Gather vitals and assessment data, complete an SBAR, finally contact the physician
C) Wait for the charge nurse's instructions
D) Ignore the unusual event
B) Gather vitals and assessment data, complete an SBAR, finally contact the physician
C) Wait for the charge nurse's instructions
D) Ignore the unusual event
4. What is the most common dietary recommendation for pregnant women?
A) Low calorie diet
B) Regular diet with no additional calories
C) Regular diet with an additional 300 - 400 calories per day
D) Fasting diet
B) Regular diet with no additional calories
C) Regular diet with an additional 300 - 400 calories per day
D) Fasting diet
5. If D5W is added to a blood transfusion, what is the expected outcome?
A) Increased clotting time
B) Hemolysis (breaking down of erythrocytes)
C) Improved oxygen delivery
D) Decreased fluid volume
B) Hemolysis (breaking down of erythrocytes)
C) Improved oxygen delivery
D) Decreased fluid volume
6. What is the typical setup of a blood transfusion?
A) Blood only
B) Normal saline and blood with a Y tube
C) Blood mixed with antibiotics
D) Plasma and platelets
B) Normal saline and blood with a Y tube
C) Blood mixed with antibiotics
D) Plasma and platelets
7. In case of back pain, hives, chills, edema, or increased temperature during a blood transfusion, if the symptoms are moderate, what intervention should take place?
A) Stop the blood transfusion
B) Continue to monitor
C) Increase the transfusion rate
D) Notify the physician immediately
B) Continue to monitor
C) Increase the transfusion rate
D) Notify the physician immediately
8. How many hours is blood acceptable to hang for according to the provided information?
A) 2 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 8 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 8 hours
9. If the physician orders blood to be hung for 5 hours or more, what intervention is necessary?
A) Proceed as ordered
B) Clarify with the physician and remind them that bacterial growth occurs after 4 hours
C) Change the blood bag every 2 hours
D) Increase the infusion rate
B) Clarify with the physician and remind them that bacterial growth occurs after 4 hours
C) Change the blood bag every 2 hours
D) Increase the infusion rate
10. What is the most common blood infusion rate (in hours)?
A) 1-2 hours at 50-75 ml per hour
B) 2-3 hours at 100-150 ml per hour
C) 4-5 hours at 200-250 ml per hour
D) 6-7 hours at 300-350 ml per hour
B) 2-3 hours at 100-150 ml per hour
C) 4-5 hours at 200-250 ml per hour
D) 6-7 hours at 300-350 ml per hour
11. If the Medication Administration Record (MAR) directs to give blood and antibiotics, which should be given first?
A) Give blood and antibiotics simultaneously
B) Give antibiotic, and then blood
C) Consult with the charge nurse before administering any
D) Administer according to personal preference
B) Give antibiotic, and then blood
C) Consult with the charge nurse before administering any
D) Administer according to personal preference
12. How long should a patient be monitored after a blood transfusion has been started?
A) 30 minutes
B) 45 minutes
C) 5-15 minutes
D) 60 minutes
B) 45 minutes
C) 5-15 minutes
D) 60 minutes
13. What keywords in REX PN answers always point towards an incorrect answer?
A) Keywords related to physiological processes
B) Answers with absolutes. Answers which include words like “always, never, or must, etc.
C) Answers containing nursing interventions
D) Answers with long explanations
B) Answers with absolutes. Answers which include words like “always, never, or must, etc.
C) Answers containing nursing interventions
D) Answers with long explanations
14. How many nurses are needed to check before a blood transfusion according to the information provided?
A) At least 2 RNs
B) Only 1 RN is required
C) 2 LPNs
D) 2 RNs or 1 RN and 1 LPN
B) Only 1 RN is required
C) 2 LPNs
D) 2 RNs or 1 RN and 1 LPN
15. ARE THE 4 TYPES OF BLOOD TRANSFUSION REACTIONS?
A) Circulatory overload, Febrile, Anaphylactic, Bacterial
B) Vascular, Respiratory, Hematological, Metabolic
C) Delayed, Immediate, Mild, Severe
D) Allergic, Neurological, Gastrointestinal, Dermatological
B) Vascular, Respiratory, Hematological, Metabolic
C) Delayed, Immediate, Mild, Severe
D) Allergic, Neurological, Gastrointestinal, Dermatological
16. What is the most common treatment for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
A) High flow oxygen therapy
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) Oxygen therapy 2L/minute or less
D) Administering bronchodilators
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) Oxygen therapy 2L/minute or less
D) Administering bronchodilators
17. What is the correct method to administer a Fentanyl patch?
A) Proximal to distal
B) Rotate the application site regularly
C) Distal to proximal
D) Apply on any convenient body part
B) Rotate the application site regularly
C) Distal to proximal
D) Apply on any convenient body part
18. How should a wound be cleansed according to the information provided?
A) Circular motion starting from the center
B) Distal to proximal
C) Proximal to distal using the midline, nearside, and far side method
D) Random motion without a specific technique
B) Distal to proximal
C) Proximal to distal using the midline, nearside, and far side method
D) Random motion without a specific technique
19. What is recommended for a patient with postural drainage?
A) Decrease fluid intake
B) Administer bronchodilators
C) Increase physical activity
D) More fluids
B) Administer bronchodilators
C) Increase physical activity
D) More fluids
20. What is the correct method to take the blood pressure of a patient who has undergone a mastectomy?
A) Administer analgesic if possible before starting the procedure and take the blood pressure on the mastectomy side
B) Use an automatic blood pressure cuff
C) Administer anti-anxiety medication before the procedure
D) Administer analgesic and take the blood pressure on the arm opposite the mastectomy (if only one breast removed) while elevating the arm
B) Use an automatic blood pressure cuff
C) Administer anti-anxiety medication before the procedure
D) Administer analgesic and take the blood pressure on the arm opposite the mastectomy (if only one breast removed) while elevating the arm
21. What are common symptoms of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
A) Fever and cough
B) Joint pain, loss of eyebrow or eyelash hair, and photosensitivity
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Elevated blood pressure
B) Joint pain, loss of eyebrow or eyelash hair, and photosensitivity
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Elevated blood pressure
22. What is the most common symptom of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?
A) Joint pain
B) Butterfly rash on the face
C) Headache
D) Fatigue
B) Butterfly rash on the face
C) Headache
D) Fatigue
23. What is the correct intervention for a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?
A) Administer sedatives
B) Elevate the head of the bed 30 – 40 degrees into the Semi Fowler’s position
C) Apply a cold compress to the head
D) Administer a diuretic
B) Elevate the head of the bed 30 – 40 degrees into the Semi Fowler’s position
C) Apply a cold compress to the head
D) Administer a diuretic
24. What are the most common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?
A) Muscle cramps and spasms
B) Decreased sensation to pain and heat
C) Visual disturbances
D) Elevated heart rate
B) Decreased sensation to pain and heat
C) Visual disturbances
D) Elevated heart rate
25. When is an LPN intervention most important?
A) During routine care
B) During anaphylactic shock. Left untreated is 100% fatal
C) Only during scheduled appointments
D) During post-mortem care
B) During anaphylactic shock. Left untreated is 100% fatal
C) Only during scheduled appointments
D) During post-mortem care
26. How is an abdominal assessment performed?
A) Palpation, inspection, percussion, and auscultation
B) Auscultation, palpation, percussion, and inspection
C) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation
D) Percussion, auscultation, inspection, and palpation
B) Auscultation, palpation, percussion, and inspection
C) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation
D) Percussion, auscultation, inspection, and palpation
27. How is a respiratory assessment performed?
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation (in that exact order)
B) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, and percussion
C) Percussion, auscultation, inspection, and palpation
D) Auscultation, percussion, inspection, and palpation
B) Palpation, inspection, auscultation, and percussion
C) Percussion, auscultation, inspection, and palpation
D) Auscultation, percussion, inspection, and palpation
28. How is post mortem care performed?
A) Place the patient in a sitting position with arms crossed
B) Brush hair and apply makeup for a presentable appearance
C) Place the patient in a supine position with legs straight and arms beside the torso
D) Elevate the head of the bed to facilitate drainage
B) Brush hair and apply makeup for a presentable appearance
C) Place the patient in a supine position with legs straight and arms beside the torso
D) Elevate the head of the bed to facilitate drainage
29. What is physiological jaundice?
A) Jaundice occurring within 24 hours of newborn infant birth
B) Jaundice lasting for more than 2 weeks
C) Jaundice caused by infection
D) Jaundice that does not occur within 24 hours of newborn infant birth but anytime post 24 hours
B) Jaundice lasting for more than 2 weeks
C) Jaundice caused by infection
D) Jaundice that does not occur within 24 hours of newborn infant birth but anytime post 24 hours
30. What is the correct method to assess for dehydration in a child?
A) Check urine color
B) Assess mucous membranes
C) Measure blood pressure
D) Monitor body temperature
B) Assess mucous membranes
C) Measure blood pressure
D) Monitor body temperature
31. What is the correct method to assess for dehydration in an infant?
A) Check fontanel temperature
B) Assess the anterior and posterior fontanels for depression
C) Measure respiratory rate
D) Evaluate weight gain
B) Assess the anterior and posterior fontanels for depression
C) Measure respiratory rate
D) Evaluate weight gain
32. When do the anterior and posterior fontanels close?
A) Anterior closes at 6 months, posterior at 1 year
B) Anterior closes at 2 years, posterior at 3 years
C) Anterior closes at 18 months, posterior at 2 - 3 months
D) Anterior closes at birth, posterior at 6 months
B) Anterior closes at 2 years, posterior at 3 years
C) Anterior closes at 18 months, posterior at 2 - 3 months
D) Anterior closes at birth, posterior at 6 months
33. What is the correct method to chart?
A) FRESCO (Factual, Random, Essential, Systematic, Comprehensive, Ongoing)
B) SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan)
C) FOCAL (Factual, Organized, Concise, Accurate, Legible)
D) CHART (Chronological, Highlighted, Accurate, Reviewable, Thorough)
B) SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan)
C) FOCAL (Factual, Organized, Concise, Accurate, Legible)
D) CHART (Chronological, Highlighted, Accurate, Reviewable, Thorough)
34. What is the correct dosage for Nitroglycerine spray?
A) 0.1 - 0.2 mg administered sublingually
B) 0.3 - 0.4 mg administered up to 3 times every 5 minutes under the tongue
C) 1 - 2 mg injected intramuscularly
D) 5 - 10 mg taken orally every 4 hours
B) 0.3 - 0.4 mg administered up to 3 times every 5 minutes under the tongue
C) 1 - 2 mg injected intramuscularly
D) 5 - 10 mg taken orally every 4 hours
35. When should a tracheostomy dressing be changed?
A) Twice a shift
B) Tracheostomy dressings do not need regular changes
C) Once per shift
D) Every 2 hours
B) Tracheostomy dressings do not need regular changes
C) Once per shift
D) Every 2 hours
36. What is the best method to prepare for a suspected MI (Myocardial Infarction)?
A) Call a code blue immediately
B) Clear the hallway and check the crash cart
C) Administer aspirin to the patient
D) Notify the family before any intervention
B) Clear the hallway and check the crash cart
C) Administer aspirin to the patient
D) Notify the family before any intervention
37. What is the best intervention for a broken piece of equipment?
A) Use the equipment cautiously until it can be replaced
B) Ignore the broken equipment
C) Put an "out of order" sign on the equipment, and create a requisition for maintenance to fix
D) Attempt to fix the equipment without notifying anyone
B) Ignore the broken equipment
C) Put an "out of order" sign on the equipment, and create a requisition for maintenance to fix
D) Attempt to fix the equipment without notifying anyone
38. What is the correct way to deal with acuity?
A) Prioritize care based on patient preferences
B) Prioritize care based on scheduled appointments
C) Prioritize care based on routine care needs
D) Prioritize care based on the level of risk
B) Prioritize care based on scheduled appointments
C) Prioritize care based on routine care needs
D) Prioritize care based on the level of risk
39. How is the Apgar scale scored?
A) 5 - 7 requires intervention
B) 8 - 10 is an ideal situation
C) 3 - 6 indicates a critical condition
D) 0 - 2 requires further assessment
B) 8 - 10 is an ideal situation
C) 3 - 6 indicates a critical condition
D) 0 - 2 requires further assessment
40. How does the fetal heart rate system work?
A) Accelerations – Oxygen (infant is well oxygenated) GOOD
B) Variable deceleration – Cord compression (changing position alleviates) GOOD
C) Early deceleration – Head compression (deceleration mirrors the contractions) GOOD
D) Late deceleration – Placental utero insufficiency (decreased perfusion) BA
B) Variable deceleration – Cord compression (changing position alleviates) GOOD
C) Early deceleration – Head compression (deceleration mirrors the contractions) GOOD
D) Late deceleration – Placental utero insufficiency (decreased perfusion) BA
41. What is the most important thing to obtain before starting a blood transfusion?
A) Patient’s insurance information
B) Patient’s dietary preferences
C) Patient’s ID bracelet confirmation and consent (in that order)
D) Patient’s primary care physician contact information
B) Patient’s dietary preferences
C) Patient’s ID bracelet confirmation and consent (in that order)
D) Patient’s primary care physician contact information
42. How does the rule of 9’s work for burns?
A) Head and neck – 9%, Upper extremities – 9% each (18% for both), Lower extremities – 9% each (18% for both), Front chest – 18%, Back chest – 18%, Genitalia – 1%
B) Head – 9%, Torso – 18%, Lower extremities – 27%
C) Head – 18%, Upper extremities – 9% each, Lower extremities – 9% each, Torso – 27%, Genitalia – 1
D) No rule exists for burns
B) Head – 9%, Torso – 18%, Lower extremities – 27%
C) Head – 18%, Upper extremities – 9% each, Lower extremities – 9% each, Torso – 27%, Genitalia – 1
D) No rule exists for burns
43. What are the 12 cranial nerves and what do they control (including the type of sensory)?
A) Olfactory (smell), Optic (sight), Oculomotor (external eye muscles), Trochlear (external eye muscles), Trigeminal (chewing and facial sensation) BOTH, Abducent (lateral eye movement) MOTOR, Facial (muscles of facial expression, taste buds, blinking, fingers and toes) BOTH, Vestibulocochlear (sound and balance) SOMATIC, Glossopharyngeal (taste and swallowing) BOTH, Vagus (organs in the chest and abdomen) BOTH, Accessory (neck muscles) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (tongue and neck muscles) MOTOR
B) Olfactory (hearing), Optic (taste), Oculomotor (smell), Trochlear (touch), Trigeminal (vision) BOTH, Abducent (taste) MOTOR, Facial (balance), Vestibulocochlear (hearing) SOMATIC, Glossopharyngeal (vision) BOTH, Vagus (smell) BOTH, Accessory (hearing) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (touch) MOTOR
C) Olfactory (smell), Optic (sight), Oculomotor (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trochlear (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trigeminal (chewing and facial sensation) BOTH, Abducent (lateral eye movement) MOTOR, Facial (muscles of facial expression, taste buds, blinking, fingers and toes) BOTH, Vestibulocochlear (sound and balance) MOTOR, Glossopharyngeal (taste and swallowing) BOTH, Vagus (organs in the chest and abdomen) BOTH, Accessory (neck muscles) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (tongue and neck muscles) BOTH
D) Olfactory (smell), Optic (sight), Oculomotor (external eye muscles) BOTH, Trochlear (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trigeminal (chewing and facial sensation) BOTH, Abducent (lateral eye movement) BOTH, Facial (muscles of facial expression, taste buds, blinking, fingers and toes) BOTH, Vestibulocochlear (sound and balance) SOMATIC, Glossopharyngeal (taste and swallowing) BOTH, Vagus (organs in the chest and abdomen) BOTH, Accessory (neck muscles) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (tongue and neck muscles) MOTOR
B) Olfactory (hearing), Optic (taste), Oculomotor (smell), Trochlear (touch), Trigeminal (vision) BOTH, Abducent (taste) MOTOR, Facial (balance), Vestibulocochlear (hearing) SOMATIC, Glossopharyngeal (vision) BOTH, Vagus (smell) BOTH, Accessory (hearing) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (touch) MOTOR
C) Olfactory (smell), Optic (sight), Oculomotor (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trochlear (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trigeminal (chewing and facial sensation) BOTH, Abducent (lateral eye movement) MOTOR, Facial (muscles of facial expression, taste buds, blinking, fingers and toes) BOTH, Vestibulocochlear (sound and balance) MOTOR, Glossopharyngeal (taste and swallowing) BOTH, Vagus (organs in the chest and abdomen) BOTH, Accessory (neck muscles) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (tongue and neck muscles) BOTH
D) Olfactory (smell), Optic (sight), Oculomotor (external eye muscles) BOTH, Trochlear (external eye muscles) MOTOR, Trigeminal (chewing and facial sensation) BOTH, Abducent (lateral eye movement) BOTH, Facial (muscles of facial expression, taste buds, blinking, fingers and toes) BOTH, Vestibulocochlear (sound and balance) SOMATIC, Glossopharyngeal (taste and swallowing) BOTH, Vagus (organs in the chest and abdomen) BOTH, Accessory (neck muscles) MOTOR, Hypoglossal (tongue and neck muscles) MOTOR
44. What are the most important things to check before administering a blood transfusion?
A) Blood type and Rh compatibility of the patient
B) Patient’s dietary restrictions
C) Patient’s vital signs
D) Patient’s insurance coverage for the transfusion
B) Patient’s dietary restrictions
C) Patient’s vital signs
D) Patient’s insurance coverage for the transfusion
45. What intervention is necessary if a hypoglycemic patient is found conscious but drowsy and nauseous?
A) Administer glucose intravenously
B) Encourage oral intake of sugar-containing fluids
C) Administer glucagon tablets (usually between 3 - 6 tablets)
D) Apply ice packs to decrease nausea
B) Encourage oral intake of sugar-containing fluids
C) Administer glucagon tablets (usually between 3 - 6 tablets)
D) Apply ice packs to decrease nausea
46. What intervention is necessary if a hypoglycemic patient is found unconscious?
A) Administer glucose intravenously
B) Administer glucagon intravenously
C) Administer glucagon IV
D) Encourage oral intake of sugar-containing fluids
B) Administer glucagon intravenously
C) Administer glucagon IV
D) Encourage oral intake of sugar-containing fluids
47. What is Reye Syndrome?
A) A condition presenting in children with fever after Acetylsalicylic Acid administration
B) A type of neurological disorder
C) A condition caused by excessive caffeine intake
D) A respiratory condition common in infants
B) A type of neurological disorder
C) A condition caused by excessive caffeine intake
D) A respiratory condition common in infants
48. What procedure is necessary if unfamiliar with a disease (e.g., Fetal Alcohol Syndrome)?
A) Administer treatment based on symptoms
B) Leave the patient’s room and read about the disease, then check facility protocol, procedure, and policy
C) Ignore the disease and continue with routine care
D) Consult with other nursing staff for guidance
B) Leave the patient’s room and read about the disease, then check facility protocol, procedure, and policy
C) Ignore the disease and continue with routine care
D) Consult with other nursing staff for guidance
49. What effect does any drug, especially antibiotics, have if taken too frequently?
A) Decreased therapeutic effect
B) Accumulative effect
C) Immediate elimination from the body
D) Increased absorption in the gastrointestinal tract
B) Accumulative effect
C) Immediate elimination from the body
D) Increased absorption in the gastrointestinal tract
50. What is a common symptom of arterial insufficiency?
A) The extremity is warm to the touch
B) The extremity is cold to the touch, and pedal pulses are not felt
C) Rapid capillary refill
D) Elevated blood pressure in the affected limb
B) The extremity is cold to the touch, and pedal pulses are not felt
C) Rapid capillary refill
D) Elevated blood pressure in the affected limb
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